Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia Lần 2 năm học 2018-2019 môn Tiếng Anh - Mã đề 020 - SGD & ĐT Ninh Bình

 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA 
 TỈNH NINH BÌNH LẦN THỨ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 
 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 
 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề 
 (Đề thi gồm có 04 trang) Mã đề thi 020 
Họ tên thí sinh:...............................................................; Số báo danh:................................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each 
pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 1: My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. We need to decide for the good of everyone. 
 A. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all. 
 B. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone. 
 C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter. 
 D. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good of everyone. 
Question 2: She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. 
 A. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document. 
 B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document. 
 C. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document. 
 D. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning 
to each of the following questions. 
Question 3: It was wrong of you not to ask your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. 
 A. You should have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. 
 B. You might have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. 
 C. You had to have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. 
 D. You must have asked your parents’ permission before deciding to quit your job. 
Question 4: Needless to say, Mike is cleverer than other students in the class. 
 A. Needless to say, other students in the class are cleverer than Mike. 
 B. Needless to say, other students in the class are as clever as Mike. 
 C. Needless to say, Mike is not so clever as other students in the class. 
 D. Needless to say, Mike is the cleverest student in the class. 
Question 5: “What film did you watch last night, Dave?” Dora asked. 
 A. Dora asked Dave what film he had watched the previous night. 
 B. Dora wondered what film Dave watched the night before. 
 C. Dora asked Dave what he watched film the previous night. 
 D. Dora wanted to know what film had Dave watched the night before. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 6: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the 
symptoms of sleep deprivation. 
 A. loss B. damage C. supply D. offer 
Question 7: - “What do you think about my idea for a new smart phone game” 
 - “I think it’s got potential. It sounds really good.” 
 A. it is certain of success B. it’s possible, but not practical 
 C. it seems that it can be successful D. someone already did it 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 8: A. indeed B. pioneer C. seen D. green 
Question 9: A. attacked B. distinguished C. attracted D. relaxed 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of 
the following exchanges. 
Question 10: July and Harry are talking about their plan for the weekend. 
 - July: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” 
 - Harry: “____. The weather forecast says a storm is coming.” 
 A. That’s a deal B. I’m afraid we can’t C. That’s a good idea D. Sure 
 Trang 1/4 - Mã đề thi 020 Question 11: The teacher is asking Kevin about the reason for his absence from the class. 
 - Teacher: “Why didn’t you show up for class this morning?” 
 - Kevin: “____. You know, I live far from the school.” 
 A. My car broke down B. It’s not the case C. It’s a fine day D. That’s good 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three 
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 12: A. apply B. leopard C. panda D. parrot 
Question 13: A. disaster B. reduction C. example D. penalty 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions. 
Question 14: Our magazine ___________ in May if we receive all the articles on time. 
 A. will publish B. would be published C. will be published D. will have published 
Question 15: The accident brought him to his ____________ and made him stop drinking. 
 A. responsibilities B. duties C. senses D. awareness 
Question 16: Sharon ________ to Italy twice before she visited Rome for the first time. 
 A. was going B. had gone C. went D. has gone 
Question 17: We’ve got to save the rainforests ____________ being destroyed. 
 A. to B. for C. with D. from 
Question 18: Many city-dwellers like to spend their weekend in the country to enjoy the fresh air and the 
_______ of nature. 
 A. beautiful B. beauty C. beautifully D. beautify 
Question 19: At first, it’s very difficult for the judge to identify the winner because the two runners seemed to 
cross the finishing line ______________. 
 A. simultaneously B. chronologically C. respectively D. spontaneously 
Question 20: In today’s paper, it ____________ that the Vietnam’s national examination for high school 
students will take place from June 24th to 27th. 
 A. expresses B. admits C. says D. proposes 
Question 21: “Sorry, I don’t know it exactly, but I think the Ethnology Museum is within _____ easy distance.” 
 A. an B. the C. a D. Ø (no article) 
Question 22: ___________ our own interests is one of the most important factors in choosing a job. 
 A. Seeking B. Chasing C. Realizing D. Pursuing 
Question 23: Tina would consider ______________ to Finland with us this summer. 
 A. to have gone B. to go C. going D. being gone 
Question 24: ____________ Jim likes the band, he’s too tired to go to the concert this evening. 
 A. Even though B. Because of C. Since D. Whatever 
Question 25: The ________________ of the palace in the water was very clear and dreamy. 
 A. sight B. shadow C. reflection D. shade 
Question 26: Thousands of people ____________ along the roads watched the bicycle racing. 
 A. to stand B. stood C. who stands D. standing 
Question 27: ___________, I entered one of the most prestigious universities of the United States. 
 A. To award a scholarship B. Having been awarded a scholarship 
 C. I have been awarded a scholarship D. Awarding a scholarship 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 28: I am at a loss to know how you are going to pass your subjects without studying. All what you 
do is playing video games all day. 
 A. fail to understand B. lose the game 
 C. feel like a stranger D. completely understand 
Question 29: The company rejected the claim that they were responsible for these teenagers’ health 
problems. 
 A. ignored B. accepted C. denied D. disagreed 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 37. 
 Even though most people can’t find it on a map, the small island of Sumbawa has played an important 
role in history. Sumbawa is situated to the east of the popular resort island of Bali and is currently home to 
around 1.5 million people. For these people the island is home, but Sumbawa is important for another reason 
as well. Mount Tambora – a volcano, 1815 volcanic eruption was the deadliest and most powerful in history – 
is located on its northern half. 
 Trang 2/4 - Mã đề thi 020 In early April of 1815, Mount Tambora changed the world. It released a blast that registered a 
whopping 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. That is the highest in human history. Its eruption was so loud 
that it was heard by people who live in Sumatra – an island located more than 2,000 kilometers away. 
 When Tambora erupted, it shot around 100 cubic kilometers of rock and ash into the air. The ash 
caused complete darkness on Sumbawa and its neighboring islands for several days. It destroyed all 
vegetation and killed an estimated 71,000 people in the area. 
 But the damage Tambora caused did not end in Indonesia. One year later, the volcanic cloud of ash it 
ejected reached the northern hemisphere. There it obscured the sun and affected the climates of Europe, the 
eastern sections of the United States, and Canada. It created cooler temperatures and severe crop failure. 
Many places had snow in June and frosty nights in July, August, and September. The year of 1816 was 
known as “the year without summer”. 
 The cooler temperatures resulted in a severe and extensive famine. The prices of basic foods rose 
sharply across the affected areas. Many people resorted to begging, stealing, and travelling long distances in 
search of food. Diseases caused by malnutrition became widespread. In total, over 200,000 people died of 
starvation and disease. 
 The aftermath of the 1815 eruption of Mount Tambora was the worst of any volcanic eruption in 
recorded history. Unfortunately, volcano researchers say we can expect a similar eruption to occur within the 
next 1,000 years. While many people see manmade climate change as the most dangerous threat to the 
Earth, powerful volcanoes also threaten us with catastrophic climate disruption. 
Question 30: According to the passage, Sumbawa has played an important role in history because_______. 
 A. Mount Tambora’s eruption registered a 7 on the Volcanic Explosivity Index 
 B. it is located so close to Bali 
 C. it has a population of 1.5 million people 
 D. the largest volcanic eruption in history happened there 
Question 31: The word “blast” in paragraph 2 described a(n) ____. 
 A. image B. shape C. size D. explosion 
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ____. 
 A. ash B. darkness C. shot D. rock 
Question 33: According to the passage, why was the year of 1816 called “the year without a summer”? 
 A. Because Mt. Tambora erupting in 1816 caused famine. 
 B. As the cloud of ash from Mt. Tambora effected the climate. 
 C. As the eruption killed 71,000 people in the summer. 
 D. Because Mt. Tambora erupted in the summer. 
Question 34: The phrase “resorted to” in paragraph 5 almost means____. 
 A. tried their best B. took the last chance C. did the worst thing D. had difficulty 
Question 35: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? 
 A. The volcanic cloud of ash only reached the southern hemisphere. 
 B. The cooler temperature caused severe crop failure. 
 C. It affected the climates of several countries in Asia and Africa. 
 D. It was impossible to measure it on the Volcanic Explosivity Index. 
Question 36: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the eruption of Mt. Tambora? 
 A. Many people died because they didn’t have enough food to eat. 
 B. It was very cold in the summer of 1816. 
 C. The eruption of Tambora was the most powerful in history. 
 D. The damage was limited to Indonesia and the surrounding area. 
Question 37: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? 
 A. The volcanoes can erupt at anytime and anywhere. 
 B. Volcanic eruptions always result in a mass extinction. 
 C. The survival of the human race is not guaranteed. 
 D. Manmade climate change is still the most dangerous threat. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 38 to 42. 
 Dolphins have to be conscious to (38) ________. This means that they cannot go into a full deep 
sleep, because then they would suffocate. Dolphins have “solved” that by (39) ________ one half of their 
brain sleep at a time. This has been determined by doing EEG studies on dolphins. Dolphins sleep about 8 
hours a day in this fashion. Recent studies confirmed that dolphins have only one eye closed (40) _______ 
their sleep. The state (open or closed) of one eye remains constant for an average of an hour, after (41) 
________ it switches state. 
 REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, usually associated with dreaming has been recorded only very 
(42) ______. Some scientists claim dolphins do not have REM sleep at all. A dolphin’s behavior when 
 Trang 3/4 - Mã đề thi 020 sleeping/resting depends on the circumstances and possibly on individual preferences. They can either: swim 
slowly and surface every now and then for a breath; rest at the surface with their blowhole exposed; or rest on 
the bottom (in shallow water) and rise to the surface every now and then to breathe. 
Question 38: A. breath B. breathe C. breathed D. breathing 
Question 39: A. getting B. allowing C. doing D. letting 
Question 40: A. during B. after C. when D. while 
Question 41: A. which B. whom C. who D. that 
Question 42: A. widely B. never C. rarely D. often 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions. 
 It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of 
scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like 
vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened 
sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, 
most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can 
detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in 
the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood. 
 The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along 
the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them. These fractured columns send 
out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick 
up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees 
that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also 
smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to 
something other than sound”, one scientist said. 
Question 43: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? 
 A. the effect of insects on trees. B. the vibrations produced by insects 
 C. the mission of the U.S Forest Service D. the sound made by trees 
Question 44: The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to_____. 
 A. vultures B. trees C. insects D. scientists 
Question 45: The word “parched” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. 
 A. dehydrated B. damaged C. burned D. recovered 
Question 46: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees 
EXCEPT_____. 
 A. sounds B. smells C. changes in colours D. thermal changes 
Question 47: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals? 
 A. torn root B. lack of water 
 C. experiments by scientist D. attacks by insects 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction 
in each of the following questions. 
Question 48: If you paid attention to the lesson yesterday, you could answer my questions now. 
 A B C D 
Question 49: At present, advertising is one of the most strictly regulated industry in the United States. 
 A B C D 
Question 50: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing. 
 A B C D 
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