Đề thi minh họa THPT Quốc Gia năm 2019 môn Tiếng Anh - Mã đề 001 - Trường THPT Lê Thành Phương (Có đáp án)

SỞ GD VÀ ĐT PHÚ YÊN KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 
 TRƯỜNG THPT 2019 
LÊ THÀNH PHƯƠNG 
 ĐỀ MINH HỌA Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 
 (Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề 
 Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 001 
 Số báo danh: .......................................................................... 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose 
 underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following 
 questions. 
 Question 1: A. presses B. precedes C. judges D. catches 
 Question 2: A. pedal B. petrol C. pretty D. petty 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs 
 from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following 
 questions. 
 Question 3: A. postpone B. product C. postcard D. purpose 
 Question 4: A. economics B. material C. unpopular D. delicious 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to 
 each of the following questions. 
 Question 5: Some researchers are finding that daydreaming may be important to _______ 
 mental health and it is ___________ good means of relaxation. 
 A. Ø - Ø B. Ø - the C. Ø - a D. the - Ø 
 Question 6: If he ______ the lesson yesterday, he could do the test better today. 
 A. has reviewed B. had reviewed 
 C. will review D. reviewed 
 Question 7: They______ tired now because they______in the garden since 8 o’clock. 
 A. are/ worked B. were/were working 
 C. are/have been working D.were/worked 
 Question 8: There are so many _____ names now that it is impossible to remember them all. 
 A. brand B. model C. trademark D. logo 
 Question 9: Many people hate Mondays, saying that they really _________. 
 A. get over them B. get down them C. get them over D. get them down 
 Question 10: There _______ a number of reasons for the fall of the Roman Empire. 
 A. are said being B. are said to have been 
 C. said to be D. was said being 
 Question 11: Henry has come in his raincoat and boots, _______ for rain. 
 A. preparing B. to prepare C. prepares D.prepared 
 Question 12: Ann hoped _______to join the private club. She could make important business 
 contact here. 
 A. being invited B. to invite C. to be invited D. inviting 
 Question 13: Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to , __ ? 
 A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they 
 Question 14: It’s important to project a(n) ______ image during the interview. 
 A. optimistic B. cheerful C. positive D. upbeat 
Question 15: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen ___________ 
 A. expectation B. expected C. expectedly D.unexpectedly 
Question 16: The purpose of the survey was to ______ the inspector with local 
conditions . 
 A. notify B. instruct C. acquaint D. inform 
Question 17: Due to the violent nuclear leakage, the _______ of the electricity 
supplies put Japan's northeastern cities in a sate of chaos. 
 A. currency B. variety C. failure D. absence 
Question 18: Mr. Pike is certainly a ________ writer; he has written quite a few books 
this year. 
 A. prolific B. fruitful C.fertile D. successful 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST 
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
 Question 19: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind. 
 A. Never B. Always C. Hardly D. Sometimes 
 Question 20: Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on 
environmental campaigns. 
 A. concerned about B. confined in C. enquired about D. engaged in 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE 
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 21: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for 
a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family. 
 A. unwilling to make a decision B. able to make a choice 
 C. eager to make a plan D. unready to make up her mind 
Question 22: Friendship changed to antipathy when the settlers took the Indian’s land. 
 A. hostility B. amity C. hatred D. fright 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best 
completes each of the following exchanges. 
Question 23: John is in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks a local passer-by 
the way to the bank. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following 
exchange. 
-John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?” 
 -Passer-by: “ .” 
 A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there 
 C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here. 
Question 24: - Dylan: “I'm thinking of doing some shopping today. Can you recommend 
anywhere?" 
 -Susan: “ .” 
A. Well, you could try Oxford Street. There are lots of big department stores there. 
B. That’s OK. In that case, how about going to the Roman ruins down by the lake? 
C. To be honest, I’m not really a big fan of department stores. 
D. Well, you could try the local museum. That’s quite close to here. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 
to 29. 
 A first time for everybody 
Joe stepped onto the aeroplane and was met by one of the cabin crew who showed him 
to his seat. This was his first flight and he was feeling quite nervous. His hands were 
trembling slightly and he was breathing deeply. He walked along the (25)_________ of 
the plane and found his seat. Joe had spent a lot of time on planning his holiday, given 
this was the first time he had been abroad. Sitting next to him was an 8 year-old-boy 
who also (26)_________ to be quite nervous. Joe knew he was quite good with 
children, so he decided to try to calm the boy. After (27) __________ with the boy for a 
few minutes, Joe produced some chocolate and gave it to him. The youngster then 
became quite cheerful as he explained that he loved chocolate so much. 
The man and the boy found that they (28) _________well together as they chatted for 
the whole flight. Joe discovered that they were on the same return flight the following 
week, which pleased them both. When they disembarked at the terminal, Joe commented 
about what a very good flight he'd had. The young boy agreed, saying that he was 
looking forward to (29) ________Joe again on the return flight. 
 (Adapted from Cambridge First (FCE) Reading & Use of English 
 Practice Test) 
Question 25: A. corridor B. path C. lane D. aisle 
Question 26: A. was B. appeared C. sat D. showed 
Question 27: A. conversing B. discussing C. debating D. negotiating 
Question 28: A. got on B. were C. got to D. got so 
Question 29: A.bumping into B.cathing up with C.getting on D. keeping up with 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. 
 Six months ago I made a rash promise. The leader of the youth club in our village rang 
me in March saying, “We’re thinking of running a children’s playscheme for a day in 
October half-term. Would you be prepared to help?” My response was “Sure, why not?” 
In truth I was a little flattered to be asked, even though working as a care assistant with 
old people hardly qualified me for the role. Still, I duly put the date in my diary and of 
course I forgot all about it. I don’t know if you’ve noticed this but time has a habit of 
speeding along faster than a police car chasing a robber and, before I knew it, the day 
was dawning. 
I arrived at the youth centre that morning feeling full of trepidation. There was a gang of 
12 helpers including me and each pair had been allocated a particular age group. Mine 
was the 10 to 11 year olds. Even with the planning meeting I had attended the week 
before, I worried about whether I was up to the task. Why hadn’t I read through the 
copious lesson plans we were given beforehand? And wasn’t the average 10-year-old 
more interested in the latest Play Station game than making things with paper and glue? 
All too quickly the children began arriving. The look of relief on parents’ faces as they 
handed their offspring over to us was quite comical. A handful of the children were 
already members of the club but the other forty five or so were from the local primary 
schools. Again I asked myself why I had elected to spend a day with all these ‘little 
monsters’ especially when I have two all of my own to contend with! 
I needn’t have worried of course as it turned out to be a marvellous day. We watched 
entertaining dvd clips, learned ‘action’ songs, made clay pyramids, decorated biscuits, 
played memory games and spent some time in quiet reflection. I say ‘we’ because I 
rediscovered my inner child and joined in all the activities. 
The particular highlight for me was the final rendition of “He’s got the whole world in 
his hands” in the closing part of the day. The children knew the words and actions off by 
heart and sang so loudly it was almost enough to bring the roof down. It’s difficult to 
explain those moments; only that the body tingles with the pleasure of having witnessed 
something so magical. 
Of course there were also moments of great poignancy. I found it difficult to stop 
thinking of one little girl, who mentioned oh-so-casually that her mum was in hospital 
and would be there for a long time. It’s easy for us adults to idealise childhood and 
forget that some children have their own burden of anxieties and concerns. When I got 
home utterly exhausted, still with modelling clay under my fingernails, I reflected on 
what a privilege it had been. 
There was one disappointment for the children and that was that the playscheme was 
only running for a day, and not the whole week. As I said farewell to my group, one of 
the children turned and said “Can we do it again in the next holiday, Miss?” My 
response was, “Sure, why not?” 
 (Adapted from Cambridge First (FCE) Reading & Use of English 
 Practice Test) 
Question 30: When the day of the job arrived the writer was surprised 
A. that the day had come round so quickly. 
B. because she'd forgotten to write down the date. 
C. because she witnessed a car chase on the way. 
D. that she woke up at dawn. 
Question 31: When the writer arrived to start her job she 
A. put the children into pairs. 
B. realised she should have done more preparation. 
C. felt confident she could deal with 10 and 11 year olds. 
D. saw the children had brought their own electronic games to play with. 
Question 32: According to the writer, the parents were 
A. happy to stay with their children all day. 
B. worried about children from the other schools. 
C. nervous that their children might not behave themselves. 
D. glad to leave their children. 
Question 33: The writer's best moment 
A. occurred in the middle of the day. 
B. took her by surprise. 
C. was hard to put into words. 
D. was when the day was over. 
Question 34: What is the writer's attitude by the end of the day? 
A. She could imagine doing the job again next time. 
B. She was sad to say good bye to the chidlren. 
C. She was disappointed with the experience. 
D. She hopes the playscheme will be longer in future. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. 
Humans are consuming hundreds of wild animals “to extinction” for meat, ornaments, 
medicines and pets, according to scientists. A global crisis sparked by unregulated or 
illegal hunting and trapping means 301 different species – from monkeys to bats – are 
now in danger, a new study claims. Experts at Oregon State University in the US, who 
conducted the research, have warned the decline is having a significant environmental 
impact and undermining the food security of millions of people in Asia, Africa and 
South America. “Our goal is to raise awareness of this global crisis. Many of these 
animals are at the brink of extinction. The illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife 
products is run by dangerous international networks and ranks among trafficking in 
arms, human beings and drugs in terms of profits,” said study leader Professor William 
Ripple. 
Researchers concluded that bold changes and political will were needed to diminish the 
possibility of humans consuming many of the world’s wild mammals to the point of 
extinction. Of the species affected, 126 were primates, more than any other group, 
according to a team of researchers writing in the journal Royal Society Open Science. 
Animal rights activists said the study should serve as a wake-up call to protect 
endangered species from extinction. “This research should be heart-stopping news for 
anyone who cares about wild animal welfare and the health of our planet. Urgent action 
needs to be taken by governments across the globe to protect these hundreds of 
threatened species from extinction,” Dr Neil D’Cruze, Head of Wildlife Research and 
Policy at World Animal Protection told The Independent 
The authors found that wild meat made up a crucial part of global diets, with an 
estimated 89,000 tonnes harvested annually in the Brazilian Amazon alone. They also 
found overhunting to be mainly associated with poorer countries, where hunters might 
find it harder to feed their families. The research also showed much of the wild animal 
meat was sold in street markets and destined to become urban restaurant delicacies. 
In 2010, another study found that about five tonnes of bushmeat was smuggled weekly 
in tourist luggage through Charles de Gaulle airport in Paris, France. Dr D’Cruze said: 
“There are also the too often forgotten welfare impacts and high levels of suffering that 
animals, like primates, endure when captured and slaughtered for bush meat or the 
illegal wildlife trade. We must prevent the extinction of these incredible species, but we 
must also eradicate the pain and suffering being inflicted on millions of animals as we 
speak.” Large carnivores and herbivores over 10 kg comprised a small percentage of 
the animals listed but were hit more severely by overhunting, it was claimed. Scientists 
also warned the loss of large mammals could result in population explosions of prey 
animals, greater risk of disease and economic impact on humans. The study found that 
57 large species of even-toed ungulates, including hippopotamus, wild yak, camel and 
marsh deer, were threatened by hunting. Smaller mammals were said to play crucial 
roles in dispersing seeds, pollinating plants and controlling insects. Wild ox, camels, 
pigs, fruit bats, rhinoceroses, tapirs, deer, tree kangaroos, armadillos, pangolins, rodents 
and big cats, were all said to be affected. 
 (Adapted from 
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss? 
 A. Wild meat – a crucial part of global diets. 
 B. The illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife products. 
 C. Hundreds of animal species “being consumed to extinction”. 
 D. Raising people’s awareness of the worldwide crisis. 
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true? 
 A. The decline in the number of species has an impact on people all over the world 
 B. People are consuming a large number of wild animals for food, drugs and 
 ornaments. 
 C. Unregulated or illegal hunting leads to global crisis. 
 D. Illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife products is managed on global networks. 
Question 37: The word “diminish” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________. 
 A. raise B. decline C. fluctuate D. . remain 
Question 38: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________. 
 A. global diets B. hunters 
 C. authors D. tonnes 
Question 39: According to paragraph 4, all of the following are the essential roles that small 
animals play EXCEPT? 
 A. improving soil 
 B. scattering seeds 
 C. pollinating plants 
 D. limiting insects 
Question 40: The word “carnivores” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________. 
 A. animals eating plants B. animals eating meats 
 C. animals living in water D. animals living on land 
Question 41: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? 
 A. The illegal smuggling in wildlife is considered to be more profitable than drug 
 trafficking 
 B. The loss of large mammals could indirectly affect the health of human. 
 C. Much of the wildlife meat can be available to normal people 
 D. Overhunting is partly linked to the poor nations which lack food supply 
Question 42: What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage? 
 A. indifferent 
 B. critical 
 C. objective 
 D. subjective 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that 
needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 43: When eggs of some species of insects hatch, the newly bom insects look almost 
like its adult counterparts 
 A. When B. species C. look D. its 
Question 44: Her weigh has increased remarkably since she began receiving treatment 
 A. receiving B. weigh C. Her D. remarkably 
Question 45: In many places in the world, social or religious restrictions which prevent 
women from travelling freely. 
 A. religious B. freely. C. which D. in 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is 
closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46: The journey will be about nine hours, whichever route you take. 
 A. The journey will not last nine hours no matter which route you take. 
 B. No matter which means you takes, it will take about nine hours. 
 C. You can take the route you like, and it doesn’t take as long as nine hours. 
 D. It doesn't matter which route you take, the journey will be about nine hours . 
Question 47: "Why don't you take extra classes in English if you want to become a tourist 
guide?" said my friend. 
 A. My friend encouraged me to take extra classes in English only if I wanted to 
 become a tourist guide. 
 B. My friend suggested that I should take extra classes in English if I wanted to 
 become a tourist guide. 
 C. In my friend's opinion, I will never become a tourist guide if I don't take extra 
 classes in English. 
 D. In my friend's opinion, taking extra classes in English is necessary if I wanted to 
 become a tourist guide. 
 Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.. 
 A. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. 
 B. Although she didn't read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. 
 C. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test. 
 D. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test . 
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best 
 combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
 Question 49: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now. 
 A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport. 
 B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport. 
 C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now 
 D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport. 
 Question 50: I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson. 
 A. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson. 
 B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the 
 teacher. 
 C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher. 
 D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher. 
 ______THE END______ 
 ĐÁP ÁN: 
Question 1 B Question 11 D Question 21 B Question 31 B Question 41 B 
Question 2 C Question 12 C Question 22 B Question 32 D Question 42 C 
Question 3 A Question 13 C Question 23 B Question 33 C Question 43 D 
Question 4 A Question 14 C Question 24 A Question 34 A Question 44 B 
Question 5 C Question 15 D Question 25 D Question 35 C Question 45 C 
Question 6 B Question 16 C Question 26 B Question 36 A Question 46 D 
Question 7 C Question 17 C Question 27 A Question 37 B Question 47 B 
Question 8 A Question 18 A Question 28 A Question 38 C Question 48 C 
Question 9 D Question 19 D Question 29 B Question 39 A Question 49 B 
Question 10 B Question 20 D Question 30 A Question 40 B Question 50 C