Đề thi học sinh giỏi văn hóa Lớp 9 cấp huyện năm học 2018-2019 môn Tiếng Anh - Phòng GD&ĐT huyện Triệu Sơn (Có đáp án)

 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VĂN HÓA LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN 
 HUYỆN TRIỆU SƠN NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019 
 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) 
 Ngày thi: 05/12/2018 
 Họ và tên: .. ................................ Số báo danh: . 
 PART A: LISTENING (15 points) 
 I.  Listen to a dialogue in an electrical goods shop. Are the sentences true (T )or false (F)? (5 points) 
 1 The customer is looking for an MP3 player. _____ 
 2 The customer’s brother likes playing computer games. _____ 
 3 The e-book reader is too expensive. _____ 
 4 The customer’s brother enjoys photography. _____ 
 5 The customer decides to buy a digital camera. _____ 
 II.  Listen to the people talking about special occasions. Complete the sentences with the correct 
 speaker, A, B, C, D or E. (5 points) 
 6 Speaker ______ doesn’t think special dates are important. 
 7 Speaker ______ likes to buy gifts that show he/she cares. 
 8 Speaker ______ wishes his/her mother was more relaxed about a festival. 
 9 Speaker ______ is surprised by the behaviour of a family member. 
 10 Speaker ______ finds a special occasion can be disappointing. 
 III.  Listen to a radio news report. Choose the correct answers. (5 points) 
 11 A volcano in northern Iceland 
 A has erupted. B will erupt tomorrow. C may erupt soon. D won’t erupt any more. 
 12 The volcanic eruption may 
 A continue for many days. C injure many people. 
 B destroy rock formations. D cause another disaster. 
 13 The criminals have committed 
 A theft. B vandalism. C murder. D arson. 
 14 A witness 
 A identified the men. C was injured by the criminals. 
 B refused to speak to the police. D reported the joyriders to the police. 
 15 What can local people do tomorrow? 
 A donate clothes and food. C collect money. 
 B support the sponsored event. D go to Scotland. 
 PART B: PRONUNCIATION (5 points) 
 I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (2 points) 
 16 A wood B food C look D foot 
 17 A new B sew C few D nephew 
 II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (3 points) 
 18 A reservation B communicate C dictation D occasion 
 19 A religion B preserve C mechanic D hospitality 
 20 A immense B purity C accompany D advantage 
 PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) 
 I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences below. (10 points) 
 21 Maria left college early today because she _____ (have) a dental appointment an hour ago. 
 22 As soon as it stops raining, we _____ (take) the dog for a walk. 
 23 For the past six weeks, I _____ (have) singing lessons. 
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 24 I can't phone you at that time because I _____ (travel) on the underground. 
25 As a rule, she _____ (spend) part of each summer at her parents' house. 
26 His back was aching because he _____ (dig) in the garden all day. 
27 When I woke up, I saw the house _____ (burn). 
28 James hasn’t come here. I think he _____ (miss) the bus. 
29 He is the last person _____ (know) the news. 
30 They wish they _____ (own) a hotel in the future. 
II. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (10 points) 
31 Some people prefer to watch a film first, and then read the ______ in the paper. 
 A revue B critic C criticism D review 
32 Sam still suffers from a rare tropical disease which he ______ while in Africa. 
 A infected B contracted C influenced D complained 
33 The newspaper report contained ______ important information. 
 A many B a lot of C an D another 
34 That’s my village, ______ I love very much. 
 A which B that C where D it 
35 There is no point in phoning him. He’s certain ______ by now. 
 A to leave B to have left C leaving D having left 
36 She has written many ______ for the local magazine. 
 A newspapers B writings C news D articles 
37 Not only the Smiths but also their next-door neighbour ______ more trees in their neigbourhood so far. 
 A was planting B plant C have planted D has planted 
38 Where do you ______ going for your holidays this year? 
 A intend B expect C pretend D guess 
39 She looked every where for her book but ______ had to return home without it. 
 A lastly B at the end C in the end D at the last 
40 He has always gone _____ strange hobbies like collecting bottle-tops and inventing secret codes. 
A into B by C in for D through 
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital at the end of each sentence. (10 points) 
41 _______ plays an important role in our economy. TOUR 
42 Many people take part in horse-riding _______ for big money prizes. COMPETE 
43 The novel was _______ published in hardcover. ORIGIN 
44 The _______ tell the story through songs and dance. PERFORM 
45 His brother and he don’t look _______ . LIKE 
46 _______ about the company’s future meant that few people wanted to CERTAIN 
invest money on it. 
47 Money has been raised to _______ the area. BEAUTIFUL 
48 It was the team's fourth _______ defeat. SUCCEED 
49 It was _______ to widen the road here. PRACTICE 
50 We don't have any fresh vegetables, only _______ peas. FREEZE 
 PART D: READING (30 points) 
I. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. (10 points) 
 In 17th century colonial North America, all day-to-day cooking was done in the fireplace. General 
large, fireplaces were planned for cooking as well as for warmth. Those in the Northeast were usually four 
or five feet high, and in the South, they were often high enough for a person to walk into. A heavy timber 
called the mantel tree was used as a lintel to support the stonework above the fireplace opening. This 
timber might be scorched occasionally but it was far enough in front of the rising column of heat to be safe 
from catching fire. 
 Two ledges were built across from each other on the inside of the chimney. On these rested the 
ends of a “lug pole” from which pots were suspended when cooking. Wood from a freshly cut tree was 
used for the lug pole, so it would resist heat, but it had to be replaced frequently because it dried out and 
charred, and was thus weakened. Sometimes the pole broke and the dinner fell into the fire. When iron 
became easier to obtain, it was used instead of wood for lug poles, and later fireplaces had pivoting metal 
rods to hang pots from. 
2 
 Beside the fireplace and built as part of it was the oven. It was made like a small, secondary 
fireplace with a flue leading into the main chimney to draw out smoke. Sometimes the door of the oven 
faced the room, but most ovens were built with the opening facing into the fireplace. On baking days 
(usually once or twice a week) a roaring fire of “oven wood”, consisting of brown maple sticks, was 
maintained in the oven until its walls were extremely hot. The embers were later removed, bread dough 
was put into the oven, and the oven was sealed shut until the bread was fully baked. 
 Not all baking was done in a big oven, however. Also used was an iron “bake kettle”, which looked 
like a stewpot on legs and which had an iron lid. This is said to have worked well when it was placed in the 
fireplace, surrounded by glowing wood embers, with more embers piled on its lid. 
51 Which of the following aspects of domestic life in colonial North America does the passage mainly 
discuss? 
A Methods of baking bread C The use of iron kettles in a typical kitchen 
B Fireplace cooking D The types of wood used in preparing meals 
52 The author mentions the fireplaces built in the South to illustrate 
A how the materials used were similar to the materials used in northeastern fireplaces 
B that they served diverse functions. 
C that they were usually larger than northeastern fireplaces. 
D how they were safer than northeastern fireplaces. 
53 The word “schorched” is closest in meaning to 
A burned B cut C enlarged D bent 
54 The word “it” refers to 
A the stonework C the mantel tree 
B the fireplace opening D the rising column of heat 
55 According to the passage, how was food usually cooked in a pot in the 17th century? 
A By placing the pot directly into the fire. C By filling the pot with hot water. 
B By putting the pot in the oven. D By hanging the pot on a pole over the fire. 
56 The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to 
A maintain B reinforce C manufacture D acquire 
57 Which of the following is metioned in paragraph 2 as a disadvantage of using a wooden lug pole? 
A It was made of wood not readily available. C It occasionally broke. 
B It was difficult to move or rotate. D It became too hot to touch. 
58 It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that, compared to other firewood, “oven wood” produced 
A less smoke B more heat C fewer embers D lower flame 
59 According to paragraph 3, all of the following were true of a colonial oven EXCEPT: 
A It was used to heat the kitchen everyday. 
B It was built as part of the main fireplace. 
C The smoke it generated went out through the main chimney. 
D It was heated with maple sticks. 
60 According to the passage, which of the following was an advantage of a “ bake kettle”? 
A It did not take up a lot of space in the fireplace. 
B It did not need to be tightly closed. 
C It could be used in addition to or instead of the oven. 
D It could be used to cook several foods at one time. 
II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10 points) 
 It might be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying (61) _______ tests 
to calculate the 'real' biological age of patients based on their rate of physical deterioration. 
Information on every (62) _______ of a patients health is fed into a computer to establish (63)_______ 
they are older or younger than their calendar age suggests. 
 The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has prompted one British gerontologist to call 
for biological age to be used to determine retirement age. He (64) _______ that if an employee’s biological 
or 'real' age is shown to be 55 when he reaches his 65th birthday, he should be (65) _______ to work for 
another decade. Apparently most employers only take into (66) _______ a person’s calendar years. 
 A doctor offering these tests claims their (67) _______ will be to motivate people to improve their 
health. (68) _______ the concept of 'real age' seems set to become big (69) _______ , many believe that 
looks will always be the best (70) _______ of age. 
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 61 A out B forward C over D on 
62 A position B prospect C attitude D aspect 
63 A unless B in case C so that D whether 
64 A debates B argues C discusses D enquires 
65 A encouraged B supported C incited D promoted 
66 A interest B detail C account D importance 
67 A desire B reason C purpose D project 
68 A But B Although C Despite D However 
69 A business B pursuit C trade D concern 
70 A notice B indicator C example D token 
III. Fill in each gap with one suitable word. (10 points) 
 Living in the heart of the Brazilian Amazon, the Xicrin are a small tribe (71)_______ have retained 
their traditional customs and rites. (72)_______ such ritual is part of an age-old ceremony young men have 
to endure in (73)_______ to prove their manhood and become warriors. This entails attacking a wasps' nest 
with their bare hands. It is one of the many ceremonies (74)_______ mark the maturation of the young men 
and reflect the tribe's relationship (75)_______ the natural environment. 
 I was invited to witness this ceremony (76)_______ of my support for the Indians over many years 
as they tried to come to terms with outside culture. 
 (77)_______ a period of several days and nights, the villagers had (78)_______ for the event. The 
young men, aged fourteen to eighteen, had been listening to stories of the tribe's history, as well as 
(79)_______ taught hunting and survival skills. The final ordeal, which always results in wasp stings, 
proves (80)_______ willingness to face dangerous situations. 
 PART E: WRITING (20 points) 
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that its meaning does not change. (5 
points) 
81 I am not accustomed to driving on the left. 
I find __________________________ . 
82 Only when she is really hungry does she eats snacks between meals. 
Unless __________________________ . 
83 They wanted Mary to do the job. 
They __________________________ . 
84 We can start at 9 A.M or 10 A.M. 
It makes __________________________ . 
85 There are a lot of people dependent on him. 
He __________________________ . 
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word in 
bold and other words to complete each sentence. Do not chang the word in bold. (5 points) 
86 Do you think I could disturb you for a moment? wondering 
I __________________________ could disturb you for a moment. 
87 I'm so sorry we have to endure this weather. put 
If only we did __________________________ this weather. 
88 Everyone is sure that he will win the election. bound 
He __________________________ the election. 
89 The cause of explosion is still unknown. caused 
_________________________ is still unknown. 
90 He is very likely to come. probability 
In _________________________ come. 
III. Write a paragraph of 120 – 150 words about traffic in big cities in Viet Nam. (10 points) 
 The end 
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO HDC THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VĂN HÓA LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN 
 HUYỆN TRIỆU SƠN NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019 
 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
 Ngày thi: 05/12/2018 
 Total: 100 : 5 = 20 points 
 PART A: LISTENING (15 points) 
 I. 5 points 
 1F 2F 3T 4T 5F 
 II. 5 points 
 6B 7D 8A 9E 10C 
 III. 5 points 
 11C 12D 13A 14D 15B 
 PART B: PRONUNCIATION (5 points) 
 I. 2 points 
 16B 17B 
 II. 3 points 
 18A 19D 20B 
 PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) 
 I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences below. 
 (10 points) 
 21 had 
 22 will take 
 23 have been having 
 24 will be travelling 
 25 spends 
 26 had been digging 
 27 burning 
 28 may have missed/might have missed 
 29 to know 
 30 could own/owned 
 II. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (10 points) 
 31D 32B 33B 34A 35B 36D 37D 38A 39C 40C 
 III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital at the end of each sentence. (10 points) 
 41 tourism 
 42 competitions 
 43 originally 
 44 performers 
 45 alike 
 46 uncertainty 
 47 beautify 
 48 successive 
 49 impraticable 
 50 frozen 
 PART D: READING (30 points) 
 I. 10 points 
 51B 52C 53A 54C 55D 56D 57C 58B 59A 60C 
 II. 10 points 
 61A 62D 63D 64B 65A 66C 67C 68B 69A 70B 
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 III. 10 points 
71 who 72 one 73 order 74 which/that 75 with 
76 because 77 For/Over 78 prepared 79 being 80 their 
PART E: WRITING 
I. 5 points 
81 I am not accustomed to driving on the left. 
I find it difficult to drive on the left. . 
82 Only when she is really hungry does she eats snacks between meals. 
Unless she is really hungry, she doesn’t eat/she never eatss nacks between meals. 
83 They wanted Mary to do the job. 
They wanted the job to be done by Mary . 
84 We can start at 9 A.M or 10 A.M. 
It makes no difference whether we (will) start at 9 A.M or 10 A.M. 
85 There are a lot of people dependent on him. 
He has a lot of dependants. 
II. 5 points 
86 Do you think I could disturb you for a moment? wondering 
I was wondering whether I could disturb you for a moment. 
87 I'm so sorry we have to endure this weather. put 
If only we did not have to put up with this weather. 
88 Everyone is sure that he will win the election. bound 
He is bound to win the election. 
89 The cause of explosion is still unknown. caused 
What caused the explosion is still unknown. 
90 He is very likely to come. probability 
In all probability he will come. 
III. 10 points 
- Form : 1 điểm 
 Yêu cầu đúng thể thức và nội dung của bài viết. Bài viết phải bao gồm câu chủ đề, phần nội 
 dung và câu kết. 
- Grammatical accuracy and spelling: 2 điểm 
 Một lỗi ngữ pháp hoặc chính tả trừ 0.1 điểm (không trừ quá 2 điểm). 
- Content: 5 điểm 
 + Tell the facts (crowded/heavy traffic/disobey traffic regulations...)(2 points) 
 + Consequence: traffic jam, air pollution, noise pollution, accidents... (2 points) 
 + Sollutions (1 points) 
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và liên kết câu): 2 điểm 
 Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-2 điểm. 
- Nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với yêu cầu mỗi 5 từ, trừ 0.2 điểm. 
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